Prior to my having attended Bible College at New Brunswick Bible Institute, I had written to the Theology Professor there in regard to the Rapture. In his letter back to me he wrote, “It may be helpful to read 2 Thess. 2 and to note the chronological order of events. Carefully explore v.3 and the Greek word which is translated ‘a falling away.’ The word literally means, ‘the departure.’ All the English translations prior to 1611 translated it as ‘the departure.’” He then referenced a book by Wayne House titled When the Trumpet Sounds, which I assume is where he received this information.
First of all, it would be helpful if he remembered that the English is a translation—so it would be wise if he did not put all his eggs in the basket of assumption based on the English word prior to 1611, and his false understanding of that word, its meaning and application.
Second of all, none of the English translations prior to 1611 translate it as “the departure,” and all of them certainly do not translate it as “a departing” (what I am sure he meant to refer to). John Wyclif (1380) translates it as “dissension” while the Douay-Rheims (1582) translates it as “a revolt.” William Tyndale (1534) was the first to use “a departing” (see also Cranmer 1539 and Geneva 1560, 1599), which clearly refers to “a departing from the faith” in the same way that “a falling away” clearly refers to “a falling away from the faith,” as supported by Scripture (1 Tim. 4:1-3; 2 Tim. 3:1-3, 4:3-4).
Third of all, the Greek word literally means “apostasy.” One needs only take a good look at the word itself and it is clear – apostasia (αποστασια). Examine Strong’s, Vine’s, Zodhiates’, or Kittel’s work. As much as I respect him, truly, this is poor scholarship on his behalf, especially considering he has apparently studied Greek. I would be embarrassed for this conclusion drawn from an assumption. He should know better.
Once again, Robert Reymond deals exceptionally well with this section. “From Paul’s declaration that ‘relief’ for the church from its troubles and persecutions will come not seven years before but ‘when the Lord Jesus is revealed [εν τη αποκαλυψει, en tē apokalypsei] from heaven with his holy angels with blazing fire’ (2 Thess. 1:7, emphasis supplied), which ‘revelation’ he describes only verses later as the ‘appearing [επιφανεια, epiphaneia] of his coming [παρουσιας, parousias]’ (2 Thess. 2:8), it becomes quite clear that Christ’s coming and the ensuing rapture spoken of in 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 are neither separate events nor is the rapture a ‘secret, hidden event but a [very visible] breaking into history of the glory of God.’”1
Paul states clearly in verse 2 that he is speaking to them about “the day of the Lord,” and then he continues by saying, “[That day] [the day of the Lord, the same one as talked about in the Old Testament] will not come unless the apostasy (apostasia, αποστασια) comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed” (emphasis supplied). The Old Testament talks frequently about “the day of the Lord.” “The day of the Lord” has not changed in the New Testament. It is the same period. It is one event! The Second Advent!
1 Robert L. Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, 1024.
First of all, it would be helpful if he remembered that the English is a translation—so it would be wise if he did not put all his eggs in the basket of assumption based on the English word prior to 1611, and his false understanding of that word, its meaning and application.
Second of all, none of the English translations prior to 1611 translate it as “the departure,” and all of them certainly do not translate it as “a departing” (what I am sure he meant to refer to). John Wyclif (1380) translates it as “dissension” while the Douay-Rheims (1582) translates it as “a revolt.” William Tyndale (1534) was the first to use “a departing” (see also Cranmer 1539 and Geneva 1560, 1599), which clearly refers to “a departing from the faith” in the same way that “a falling away” clearly refers to “a falling away from the faith,” as supported by Scripture (1 Tim. 4:1-3; 2 Tim. 3:1-3, 4:3-4).
Third of all, the Greek word literally means “apostasy.” One needs only take a good look at the word itself and it is clear – apostasia (αποστασια). Examine Strong’s, Vine’s, Zodhiates’, or Kittel’s work. As much as I respect him, truly, this is poor scholarship on his behalf, especially considering he has apparently studied Greek. I would be embarrassed for this conclusion drawn from an assumption. He should know better.
Once again, Robert Reymond deals exceptionally well with this section. “From Paul’s declaration that ‘relief’ for the church from its troubles and persecutions will come not seven years before but ‘when the Lord Jesus is revealed [εν τη αποκαλυψει, en tē apokalypsei] from heaven with his holy angels with blazing fire’ (2 Thess. 1:7, emphasis supplied), which ‘revelation’ he describes only verses later as the ‘appearing [επιφανεια, epiphaneia] of his coming [παρουσιας, parousias]’ (2 Thess. 2:8), it becomes quite clear that Christ’s coming and the ensuing rapture spoken of in 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 are neither separate events nor is the rapture a ‘secret, hidden event but a [very visible] breaking into history of the glory of God.’”1
Paul states clearly in verse 2 that he is speaking to them about “the day of the Lord,” and then he continues by saying, “[That day] [the day of the Lord, the same one as talked about in the Old Testament] will not come unless the apostasy (apostasia, αποστασια) comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed” (emphasis supplied). The Old Testament talks frequently about “the day of the Lord.” “The day of the Lord” has not changed in the New Testament. It is the same period. It is one event! The Second Advent!
1 Robert L. Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith, 1024.